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Can someone explain to me why the "ex post facto" dictum doesn't negate Ken Starr's request to
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CTyankee
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Sat Dec-20-08 04:04 PM
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Can someone explain to me why the "ex post facto" dictum doesn't negate Ken Starr's request to |
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nullify existing gay marriages in CA's supreme court?
If gay marriages were legal at the time of the marriage, how can they now be deemed null and void?
What am I missing here?
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