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Once the semen leaves his body, he is responsible for the damages it causes, physical and financial, to the person he deposits it into.
This is a valid viewpoint... if all sex is rape.
Would you extend your argument two ways? What if the man catches an STD from the woman? Is she "responsible for all the damages it causes, physical and financial" Let's take it a step further - what if he knew, beforehand, that she had an STD, and in fact assured her that there was no risk of his catching it?
What if he told her that with a fraudulent motivation? - to take advantage of the financial responsibility she would assume for having infected him?
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