General Discussion
In reply to the discussion: Pope Francis is naming names [View all]happyslug
(14,779 posts)For example, the Spanish Inquisition had jurisdiction over Jews and Moslems who had converted to Catholicism, but no jurisdiction over one who never did:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spanish_Inquisition
The Spanish Government of the 1400s to the 1700s would force out non converted Jews and Moslem, for they came under the power of the Government, as opposed to those Jews and Moslems who converted to Catholicism, whose conversion made them subject to the Inquisition.
All of this was independent of the Jesuits, much of it BEFORE the Jesuits were founded in 1540.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Society_of_Jesus
One aspect of the Jesuits was its concentration in NON-Catholic areas. Thus little opportunity for the Jesuits to force conversion of anyone. Other Catholics did that but it was not within the powers of the Jesuits. There were an educated elite group who understood commerce to an extent unknown outside of the Netherlands and London in the 1500s (and the main reason the Jesuits were hated by the Dutch and the English). In the 1700s they were suppress, out side of Russia, as the various kings of Europe wanted to rob them of their wealth. Cathrine the Great protected them till the 1800s when the Jesuits were permitted back into Europe and most of the world.
Just a comment that the Jesuits did little or no torture of anyone. I can NOT say that about the Catholic Church as a whole, but your comment is on the Jesuits.