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Nye Bevan

(25,406 posts)
Fri Jan 25, 2013, 08:26 PM Jan 2013

If Congress passed a law banning corporations from publishing books

that mentioned a candidate for election, within a 3 month period prior to the election, should that law be constitutional?


2 votes, 0 passes | Time left: Unlimited
No, that law would be a blatant violation of the First Amendment, so would be unconstitutional.
2 (100%)
Yes. Corporations are not people, so they have no First Amendment rights. The law would be constitutional.
0 (0%)
Other.
0 (0%)
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If Congress passed a law banning corporations from publishing books (Original Post) Nye Bevan Jan 2013 OP
Other: Depends on the Supreme Court. ZombieHorde Jan 2013 #1
OK, but if *you* were on the Supreme Court, how would you vote? (nt) Nye Bevan Jan 2013 #5
Damn it! The other question was much easier. ZombieHorde Jan 2013 #6
There is no "should" about this on-its-face unConstitutional notion. WinkyDink Jan 2013 #2
Haven't seen a good "I feel dumber simply for seeing this question" post in days. (nt) Posteritatis Jan 2013 #3
... Fumesucker Jan 2013 #4
Kick Nye Bevan Jan 2013 #7
Kick Nye Bevan Jan 2013 #8

ZombieHorde

(29,047 posts)
1. Other: Depends on the Supreme Court.
Fri Jan 25, 2013, 08:41 PM
Jan 2013

Their interpretation of the Constitution, which can change from time to time, is the one our laws are based one. What other people may think may fun for debate, but that is all it is as far as US law goes.

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