Reply #131: It is an implied right since Congress has the right to create courts

[Freedom_from_Chains]

However, this thread did give me cause to wonder if it has ever been done before and the answer is yes, it has, in 1802 and in 1913, although there was an issue as to whether or not judges still had to be paid. In the 1802 incident they did not continue to pay the judges, in the 1913 case, they transferred the judges affected to other courts. So there is precedent for Congress to abolish a court.

Source: The Constitution, Edward S. Corwin; Princeton University Press