As you will have guessed, I'm not an American and my knowledge of American law is, to say the least, minimal.

But I thought the purpose of the Fifth Amendment was to allow witnesses to avoid self-incrimination. For example....

Q: Did you shoot this guy? A: I plead the Fifth.
Q: Did you steal the money? A: I plead the Fifth.

etc

The word "incrimination" seems (at least to me, in my naivety) to relate to some degree of criminal activity. So, how does it work if the "activity" does not entail any degree of criminal behaviour as I believe infidelity does not contain a criminal aspect?

Just wondering!

Can't wait for the second debate.