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Fri Apr 1, 2016, 09:07 AM

Question about popular vote calculation

http://www.democraticunderground.com/10027730604

I posted this in GD, but reposting here, because I'm really not sure where it belongs.



Something flew by in the media about caucuses and popular vote, so I googled it and found this from 2008.


SOME states using caucuses do NOT record vote totals, and thus certify no votes (so neither candidate wins any popular votes in those states, just the delegates as apportioned by the archaic caucus system).

http://hillbuzz.org/how-is-the-popular-vote-calculated

Does anyone know which state this year are not recording total votes?

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Reply Question about popular vote calculation (Original post)
floppyboo Apr 2016 OP
Attorney in Texas Apr 2016 #1
DanTex Apr 2016 #2
floppyboo Apr 2016 #3

Response to floppyboo (Original post)

Fri Apr 1, 2016, 09:11 AM

1. Hillarians like to whine that many of Sanders' crushing wins came in caucuses and in the next breath

they like to talk about "popular vote" totals that exclude many caucuses.

For many Hillarians, this is the deception that helps them sleep at night.

Considering that they have lost 66% of the states outside of the Bible Belt, you can't be too surprised they cling to this false comfort.

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Response to floppyboo (Original post)

Fri Apr 1, 2016, 09:13 AM

2. It's an imperfect calculation because caucuses have lower turnout, and some caucuses don't

report vote totals. The delegate totals are more meaningful than the popular vote.

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Response to floppyboo (Original post)

Fri Apr 1, 2016, 09:17 AM

3. so, ignore all the popular vote rhetoric?

It's all so very confusing, and, to my mind, is so much fodder for political spin, and I am getting mighty dizzy!

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