A question about votes for the house.

[Incitatus]

Due to how districts are drawn, is it possible that there are more democratic votes for house seats, yet Republicans control the majority of the seats. Would there be a way to easily research this?

[PoliticAverse]

1. Is it possible? Yes.

Suppose for example there are 3 districts with identical sized voting populations of 100,000

In District 1 a Democrat runs unopposed
In District 2 and 3 there are both Democratic and Republican candidates.

Suppose on election day the vote breaks down like this:

District 1 Democrat 50,000 Republican -
District 2 Democrat 49,000 Republican 51,000
District 3 Democrat 48,000 Republican 52,000

The result would be 2 Republicans elected and 1 Democrat.
The total votes by party would be: Democratic: 147,000 Republican: 103,000

For some historical background on Congressional District manipulation see:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gerrymandering

[Tx4obama]

3. See comment #2 for the answer and numbers :) n/t

[Tx4obama]

2. They said on TV earlier today that the vote totals for House Dems were more than for GOPers.

Heard it on either CNN or MSNBC.


Okay, I just now found the numbers...

Popular vote
Republicans: 53,822,442
Democrats: 54,301,095

Pop votes are on the right side of the page under the photos, here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/U.S._House_election,_2012

Note: Those are not the final numbers. Some races have not yet been called and there are still provisional ballots being counted.