Mayan civilization eventually disappeared because

because the Spanish destroyed it?

Remnants remained, but it was nowhere near the peak.

For some reason, the easterly winds bringing tropical moisture to the area were interrupted for an extended period of time. Long term drought set in and crop yields fell below levels that could support the population. With resources stretched, the political system broke down and wide-spread warfare broke out. That solved the population to food problem. Eventually the remnant populations migrated to places that could support them and the great cities were abandon.

Agricultural based societies are highly sensitive to extended perturbations in the climate system. It's thought that some of the problems the Roman Empire faced were related to shifts in precipitation and temperature inside and outside the empire. The great migrations that impacted the Roman Empire in the 4th and 5th centuries may have been triggered by changes across the far off Steppes that caused mass migrations westward, pushing the border german tribes against and into the empire. The Huns being the most famous of these steppe horseman tribes to terrorize the Romans.

They came in from somewhere (likely north, from indigenous traditions, but the center of gravity and diversity for Uto-Aztecan language is in NW Mexico, and it's plausible to think that they expanded from there).

Mayan civ mostly dried up--literally, as cenotes went dry when the rain failed and agricultural production declined. There's also a bit of evidence for cultural evolution towards more heavy-handed rulers, as well.

as shit tried.

The great kingdoms were fading before the Spanish appeared and disappeared sometime between 900 and 1000 C.E., but the Mayan people are still there living in the shadows of their Empires.
They stayed in the Highlands and deep jungle areas to avoid the other civilizations and Spanish.
Europeans eventually found the Mayans themselves in the late 1700's/early 1800's.


Haele

I question that thesis, but what does "import everything" mean?
The US GDP last year was $23.3 trillion. Total value of imported goods & services into the US was $3.12 trillion, with $2.2 trillion in exports.
So, in gross terms, imports was 13.3% of GDP, but net imports only about 3.8% of GDP.
I am, of course, assuming a parallel is being drawn about the demise of the Mayans & the US.
But, if my assumption is correct we are a very long way from "import everything".
Admittedly, only $2.4 trillion of GDP is directly assigned to "manufacturing". But, because this only accounts for base manufacturing going straight to consumer (a fully assembled car, copper wire, paper goods, etc.), but doesn't include food, it's a little misleading. Yet, 60% is still a long way from "everything"