Please keep in mind that I am not saying the Biblical Jesus
did not exist. I merely added the caveat "if he existed," because I'd prefer not to spread lies if I can help it. In no way is it meant as an insult to anyone. I used to be a Christian
I hope you didn't expect me to go visit your apologetics sites and accept what they say on face, without any critical thought of my own.
Secular sources
Josephus - Yes, Josephus refers to
a Jesus, but this is not the Jesus of the Bible. This is Jesus, the son of Damneus, who is made high priest by the King of Agrippa. The Biblical Jesus is never made high priest of anything by the authorities. I'll happily agree there was a Jesus with a brother named James. There were many individuals named Jesus in that area at that time.
Josephus on the Death of James brother of Jesus, in 62 C.E.
Josephus, Antiquities
Book 20: chapter 9
CONCERNING ALBINUS UNDER WHOSE PROCURATORSHIP JAMES WAS SLAIN; AS ALSO WHAT EDIFICES WERE BUILT BY AGRIPPA.
1. AND now Caesar, upon hearing the death of Festus, sent Albinus into Judea, as procurator. But the king deprived Joseph of the high priesthood, and bestowed the succession to that dignity on the son of Ananus, who was also himself called Ananus. Now the report goes that this eldest Ananus proved a most fortunate man; for he had five sons who had all performed the office of a high priest to God, and who had himself enjoyed that dignity a long time formerly, which had never happened to any other of our high priests. But this younger Ananus, who, as we have told you already, took the high priesthood, was a bold man in his temper, and very insolent; he was also of the sect of the Sadducees, who are very rigid in judging offenders, above all the rest of the Jews, as we have already observed; when, therefore, Ananus was of this disposition, he thought he had now a proper opportunity
. Festus was now dead, and Albinus was but upon the road; so he assembled the sanhedrin of judges, and brought before them the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James, and some others, ; and when he had formed an accusation against them as breakers of the law, he delivered them to be stoned: but as for those who seemed the most equitable of the citizens, and such as were the most uneasy at the breach of the laws, they disliked what was done; they also sent to the king , desiring him to send to Ananus that he should act so no more, for that what he had already done was not to be justified; nay, some of them went also to meet Albinus, as he was upon his journey from Alexandria, and informed him that it was not lawful for Ananus to assemble a sanhedrin without his consent. (24)
Whereupon Albinus complied with what they said, and wrote in anger to Ananus, and threatened that he would bring him to punishment for what he had done; on which king Agrippa took the high priesthood from him, when he had ruled but three months, and made Jesus, the son of Damneus, high priest. Tacitus - writing in 115 CE states that Nero blamed the Christians for the fire. In the passage used by the apologetics Tacitus refers to " one Christus" being crucified by Pontius Pilate in Tiberia. Christus is Greek for "Messiah." Many false profits were put to death under Roman rule. I will say that the word Christian, as derived from Christus, did come into use during Tacitus time, though it was not in the common vernacular yet.
Tacitus never mentions the name "Jesus" in all of his works. There is only this ONE reference to one Christus. If Tacitus is actually referring to the Biblical Jesus, why didn't Clement of Alexandria use this work when he was compiling references to the existence of the Biblical Jesus from pagan sources in the 3rd century CE?
"Nero looked around for a scapegoat, and inflicted the most fiendish tortures on a group of persons already hated by the people for their crimes. This was the sect known as Christians. Their founder, one Christus, had been put to death by the procurator Pontius Pilate in the reign of Tiberius. This checked the abominable superstition for a while, but it broke out again and spread, not merely through Judea, where it originated, but even to Rome itself, the great reservoir and collecting ground for every kind of depravity and filth. Those who confessed to being Christians were at once arrested, but on their testimony a great crowd of people were convicted, not so much on the charge of arson, but of hatred of the entire human race."
Pliny the Younger - became Governor of Bithynia (part of Turkey) around 110 CE and wrote a letter because he was having trouble with the Christians. The Christ he refers to is the person in the Bible, but it in no way gives any
proof that the Biblical Jesus existed. It does prove Christians existed.
Phlegon - was born in about 80 CE. There were Christians in the first century CE, and he seemed to be telling their stories, a tall tale about an eclipse and such.
Lucian - lived from 125-180 CE. This individual is a Satirist. He is making fun of Christians. Historical personages making fun of Christians does not provide proof of the Biblical Jesus. He has no reference and probably does not care for the historical accuracy of the crucifixion. He's a comedian. This is an example of ridicule:
... the man who was crucified in Palestine because he introduced this new cult into the world.... Furthermore, their first lawgiver persuaded them that they were all brothers one of another after they have transgressed once for all by denying the Greek gods and by worshiping that crucified sophist himself and living under his laws.
Celsus did most of his writing between 175 and 180. He does not like Christians and, while he believes there was a Jesus, he believes Jesus was the illegitimate son of Tiberius Iulius Abdes Pantera. Again, this is proof of Christians existing.
"Above all Christians are disloyal, and every church is an illicit collegium, an insinuation deadly at any time, but especially so under Marcus Aurelius. Why cannot Christians attach themselves to the great philosophic and political authorities of the world? A properly understood worship of gods and demons is quite compatible with a purified monotheism, and they might as well give up the mad idea of winning the authorities over to their faith, or of hoping to attain anything like universal agreement on divine things."
Mara Bar Serapion - Nebuchadnezzar sacked Jerusalem in 586 BCE. There was no "Jewish kingdom" as referenced in this letter after 586 BCE. One would have to assume that this statement refers to a Jewish King prior to 586 BCE, and not the Biblical Jesus. It's the only way it makes sense. Judea was under Roman domination during the life of Jesus. Read what the letter from the prisoner encouraging his son to take the straight and narrow path actually says:
What advantage did the Athenians gain from putting Socrates to death? Famine and plague came upon them as a judgment for their crime. What advantage did the men of Samos gain from burning Pythagoras? In a moment their land was covered with sand. What advantage did the Jews gain from executing their wise king? It was just after that that their kingdom was abolished. God justly avenged these three wise men: the Athenians died of hunger; the Samians were overwhelmed by the sea; the Jews, ruined and driven from their land, live in complete dispersion. But Socrates did not die for good; he lived on in the teaching of Plato. Pythagoras did not die for good; he lived on in the statue of Hera. Nor did the wise king die for good; he lived on in the teaching which he had given
Thallus - At best, Thallus was born in 80 CE or later. He is either a contemporary of Phlegon or comes after him, there were Christians then, and he was repeating their myths. This does not give historical proof of Jesus. It's a repetition of the myth with the eclipse and such.
According to your Christian Apologetics Site Carm:
His writings are only found as citations by others. Julius Africanus, who wrote about AD 221, mentioned Thallus' account of an eclipse of the sun.
*snip*
The oddity is that Jesus' crucifixion occurred at the Passover which was a full moon. It is not possible for a solar eclipse to occur at a full moon. Note that Julius Africanus draws the conclusion that Thallus' mentioning of the eclipse was describing the one at Jesus' crucifixion. It may not have been.
The excerpt they quote is this one:
Jesus Christ, according to the prophecies which had been foretold about him beforehand, came to his passion in the eighteenth year of Tiberius, at which time also we find these things written verbatim in other commentaries of the gentiles, that an eclipse of the sun happened, Bithynia was shaken by earthquake, and in the city of Nicaea many buildings collapsed, all of which agree with what occurred in the passion of the savior. Indeed Phlegon, who is an excellent calculator of Olympiads, also writes about these things, writing thus in his thirteenth book...
I will happily deal with the "20 Early Christian Writers Outside the New Testament" part later. Tired now. The Gospel of Thomas... are basically extra-Biblical texts that the Vatican tossed out, because they no longer fit their doctrine, so technically they are not non-Biblical references. And Obviously, the New Testament Gospels in Bible are in the Bible and cannot be considered non-Biblical.