|
Here's the scenario leading up to my question:
We all know that the Republicans are known for aggressive voter drives with the absentee ballots. We also know that the Republicans are aggressive on election day, phoning their Republican voters to come out to vote. What if these two things are not coordinated, county by county? In other words, what if someone has lived in one county as a registered Republican, then moved to another county. The local Republicans from the first county may send the voter absentee ballots, which the voter may then complete and return without realizing it came from that county; then as election day nears, the Republicans from the county he now lives in are calling him up to say that he should come in on election day to vote because there is no record of an absentee ballot in that county.
This would results in double voting and the voter would not even be aware of it. With all the talk of lost absentee ballots, he may just assume that his county never received his ballot.
So my question, what are the checks and balances to confirm that someone isn't sending absentee ballots in one county, and voting in the next?
|