Reply #63: So, there is no difference between "Within Percent Error" and "Margin of Error"?

[The Doctor.]

MOE defines 'percent variation' in +/- terms.

WPE would be 'swing'.

That would mean, unless I'm wrong, that a 6% WPE = 3%MOE.


A 3% MOE is not much more 'significant' than a 2% MOE.


The other questions are "how are these averages arrived at?", "Was fraud investigated where the MOE was so far off in 1992?" (Unless you forgot, we determined there was election fraud in the Ukraine in '04 for less a MOE than in Ohio... and we turned out to be right.), and, most importantly, "Are there examples of such great margins of error using paper ballots where it was determined NO fraud occured?"

If the respective answers are "Not sure"/"No"/"I don't know"... then you haven't really made a point at all.

I know that in the most recent elections, paper ballots were very close to the MOE where used, where the count was significantly deviant from the MOE, DREs were used, and all but one of the most extreme deviations on DREs favored Republicans, most notably Bush.

Then there's this sloppiness from Wiki; "The report found that 2% of the 8.5% error could be explained by Conservative supporters refusing to disclose their voting intentions"

Assuming this is correct, this means that they allowed non-answers to weigh in the poll? If so, they were building error into their polling.


So, the crux question is; "Are you saying that DRE machines were not used to commit fraud in the 2004 elections?"

Yes or no eh?